Oliver Kim @global-developments.org · Nov 19 Q: why does Gujarat have a higher industrial share than other Indian states? Is this a longstanding historical difference, the product of policy, something else? (Chart from Data for India)
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had one of the higher manufacturing shares of gross state product in the 60s
Partially longstanding (ie, Ahmedabad was dubbed "Manchester of the East" in textiles), partially due to longstanding coastline advantages, partially more recent investment in ports and infra; and partially business-friendly policy (associated strongly with Modi personally)